The Pharisees replied, “You are making those claims about yourself! Such testimony is not valid.” Jesus told them, “These claims are valid even though I make them about myself. For I know where I came from and where I am going, but you don’t know this about me. You judge me by human standards, but I do not judge anyone. And if I did, my judgment would be correct in every respect because I am not alone.” (John 8:13-18)
Relate: Today I am looking at two different verses in scripture. In each one Jesus is the person doing the talking. In John 5 He says,
And [The Father] has given [Jesus] authority to judge everyone because he is the Son of Man... I judge as God tells me.
But here in John 8 Jesus says,
You judge me by human standards, but I do not judge anyone.
React: Here is my question: If the Father has given Jesus the authority to judge everyone and Jesus does use that authority, how can He later say He doesn’t judge anyone?
One time before a while back I chose not to explain a potentially complicated concept but instead throw it open for discussion. I did it then when looking at Paul’s talk about women and head coverings (Men Women Authority and Hair) Now I will do it again today. I feel that I have an answer I could give for the question I proposed but sometimes the best answer isn’t found listening to one person speaking (or writing) but rather by engaging in conversation. Wisdom can be found when the community grapples together on an issue. I know for a fact that the community here includes both an amazing amount of intelligence and an incredible amount of diversity. I know many of you will have ideas, angles, and answers I would have never have thought on my own. So lets hear them. If the Father has given Jesus the authority to judge everyone and Jesus does use that authority, how can He later say He doesn’t judge anyone?
Comments are required. Even (especially) from you lurkers. Thanks much. You guys and ladies are all the best.